who is the son of destruction in john 17

Is there a name for applying estimation at a lower level of aggregation, and is it necessarily problematic? Title of book about humanity seeing their lives X years in the future due to astronomical event, How do rationalists justify the scientific method. He appears to equate this image with the Man of Sin. Judas Iscariot, who, after betraying Jesus, committed suicide instead of repenting, and went to hell for everlasting destruction. American Standard Version While I was with them, I kept them in thy name which thou hast given me: ... except the son of the destruction… The main doctrinal difference between the various interpretations is the one already mentioned: the question of free will. In John:17:12 KJV Jesus, in reference to Judas Iscariot, says that of all his disciples, none has been lost except the "son of perdition". For what modules is the endomorphism ring a division ring? Given my full explanation, I think all of the translations are acceptable. (See also Matthew 18: 7.) I think some perspective on the matter can be found in Luke: 1 Then said he unto the disciples, It is impossible but that offences will come: but woe unto him, through whom they come! To subscribe to this RSS feed, copy and paste this URL into your RSS reader. This means "destruction", "perishing" or "ruin". Can you have a Clarketech artifact that you can replicate but cannot comprehend? Are you saying that e.g. Jesus allowed Judas to be tempted--he withdrew his protection from Judas so that Satan could enter into his heart--and Judas chose to turn away from God and from Jesus. Translations differ in how they render this reference to Judas (though they often have a footnote saying that "son of perdition" is the word-for-word equivalent). Here, we see that Satan entered Judas. which is interpreted by Peter in Acts 1:16-20 as having been prophetic of Judas. How do Bible scholars reconcile the differences between Greek and Aramaic in John 21:15-17? How to consider rude(?) The other translations tend to reflect theology found in other parts of the bible rather than the original language. Once he stopped protecting Judas, the temptations and desires of Satan entered into him and he was overtaken by the overwhelming temptations, to which he succumbed. Some scholars[3] and theologians[4] down through history, including Hippolytus,[5] Luther,[6] Wesley,[7] Manton,[8] Schaff,[9] et al, say that first "Son of Perdition" reference is to Antiochus IV Epiphanes, the man who attacked the Second Temple in Jerusalem and defiled it by sacrificing a pig on the altar, erecting a statue of Zeus as himself in the temple, raiding the Temple treasury and minting coins saying "Theos Epiphanes" (God manifest), etc. [15], "Revelation," The People on the Earth: Chapters 2-3, Letter to Ephesus, v 13. Judas chose the path to ruin when he determined to betray Jesus. How to sustain this sedentary hunter-gatherer society? In 2 Thessalonians 2:3, Paul referred to "the son of perdition". Bullinger. What support is there for the Jehovah’s Witness translation of John 1:1? Various Old Testament origins have been suggested for "that the scripture might be fulfilled." If we read further in Luke we see this passage: Luke 22:4-6 (NIV) Emphasis added "tes" It only takes a minute to sign up. What he's referring to here is clearly that Judas was of Satan and not of God. Examples: It seems to me that there are differences in how much agency is assigned to Judas here. reply from potential PhD advisor? Is the word ноябрь or its forms ever abbreviated in Russian language? If we look at this in light of Luke, we find this verse: Luke 22:3 (NIV) Christianity Stack Exchange is a question and answer site for committed Christians, experts in Christianity and those interested in learning more. While I was with them in the world, I kept them in thy name: those that thou gavest me I have kept, and none of them is lost, but the son of … By using our site, you acknowledge that you have read and understand our Cookie Policy, Privacy Policy, and our Terms of Service. Is there any evidence for the claim that the Catholic church suppressed translation of Scripture? Is John the Baptist the same John who wrote the Book of John in the New Testament? Similar uses of "son" occur in Hebrew, such as "sons of corruption" (Isaiah 1:4 בָּנִים מַשְׁחִיתִים banim mashchitim), however the exact Hebrew or Greek term "son of perdition" does not occur in Jewish writings prior to the New Testament. How to limit population growth in a utopia? However this is not the case in all languages; for example the Luther Bible renders the use in John as "das verlorene Kind" (the lost child), but the use in 2 Thessalonians as "das Kind des Verderbens" (the child of corruption). Even those theologians who advocate an interpretation of Daniel that includes the Roman Empire in their analysis recognize Antiochus as a prototype. from your pastor, priest, or other trustworthy counselor, MAINTENANCE WARNING: Possible downtime early morning Dec 2/4/9 UTC (8:30PM…, “Question closed” notifications experiment results and graduation. This can mean both "male offspring" or, more generically, "descendant". In John 17, Jesus prays and says of his disciples. In sequence models, is it possible to have training batches with different timesteps each to reduce the required padding per input sequence? The Greek words used here are huois tes apoleias. "apoleias" Why did mainframes have big conspicuous power-off buttons? According to some modern biblical criticism New Testament writers derived the "son of perdition" (and "man of sin") concepts from Daniel and 1 Maccabees 2:48 "And they did not surrender the horn to the sinner." Then Satan entered Judas, called Iscariot, one of the Twelve. Looking at the Vines entry, this definitely means "son". While I was with them in the world, I kept them in thy name: those that thou gavest me I have kept, and none of them is lost, but the son of perdition; that the scripture might be fulfilled. The choice of using the word "perdition" is acceptable in the old form of the word ("utter destruction"), however it has taken on the connotation of "eternal damnation" and so it's no longer an appropriate translation, in my opinion. This word means "of the". What LEGO piece is this arc with ball joint? The phrase there is a literal translation from the Greek, "ὁ υἱὸς τῆς ἀπωλείας"; "the son of X" is an idiom for "one who personifies the nature of X", and "ἀπωλείας" (Strong 684) can mean "perdition", "loss", "destruction", "ruin", and so on. Commentary on [Daniel] Chapter XI, Wesley, "Doctrinal Divinity" by John Gill, Chapter 14: Of the Spiritual Reign of Christ, Commentary Critical and Explanatory of the Whole Bible, Revelation chapter 17, point 11, Matthew Henry's Complete Commentary on the Bible, Daniel, chapter 11, Commentary Critical and Explanatory on the Whole Bible, Safety of high-energy particle collision experiments, Existential risk from artificial intelligence, Self-Indication Assumption Doomsday argument rebuttal, Self-referencing doomsday argument rebuttal, List of dates predicted for apocalyptic events, List of apocalyptic and post-apocalyptic fiction, https://en.wikipedia.org/w/index.php?title=Son_of_perdition&oldid=955794963, Creative Commons Attribution-ShareAlike License, This page was last edited on 9 May 2020, at 21:18. 12 While I was with them, I was keeping them in Your name which You have given me; and I guarded them and not one of them perished but the son of perdition, so that the Scripture would be fulfilled. 2 Thessalonians 2:3 "Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;" King James Version, 1611. Was Pilate also the father of the son who was healed by Jesus in John 4? Were any IBM mainframes ever run multiuser? But what was he protecting them from? He was protecting them from Satan! How would sailing be affected if seas had actually dangerous large animals? The Strongs number for this is G5207. By saying, "Those whom You gave Me, I have kept; and none of them is lost except the son of perdition" (John 17:12), is Jesus saying that He lost someone that He was expected to keep or should have kept? The "son of perdition/destruction" seems like an obvious translation, but it's not clear to me whether (in Greek or English) it should connote that he is a destroyer, or the one who is destroyed, or both. The literal translation of this phrase would be "son of destruction" or "son of ruin". Clearly, there was plotting involved, a conscious effort to betray Jesus, and a choice that Judas made. The choice of using the word "perdition"is acceptable in the old form of the word ("utter destruction"), however it has taken on the connotation of "eternal damnation" and so it's no longer an appropriate translation, in my opinion. What is a faithful translation for “the son of perdition” in John 17:12? In fact, there are two people to which the title “son of perdition” is applied. What if the P-Value is less than 0.05, but the test statistic is also less than the critical value? If he is "doomed to destruction" or "destined to be lost" then he is being painted as a victim of fate. If we look at what Jesus is saying here, he's saying that he saved and protected all of his disciples except for Judas. Jesus was protecting the apostles from being tempted by Satan.

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